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I've just found this

E olhe, não sei se me fica mal dizer-lho, mas a rapariga quer-lhe deveras, João Eduardo.

in a portuguese book.

However, this topic verb + -o and verb + -lo claims that verb-ar /verb-er + lo ==> verb-a / verb-e-lo. Namely, the r gets eliminated off a verb when a verb ends, among z and s, in r.

t So, is this dizer-lho correct or not? What's a rule here then?

I'm asking about the Portuguese of Portugal only.

2 Answers 2

1

The final r (or s/z) are dropped only when appending -o/a/os/as or when appending -nos after the 1st person plural.

The only exception is quer+oquere-o (qué-lo is not really used that much).

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  • The final r (or s/z) are dropped only when appending -o/a/os/as --> you then claim that these are correct: dize-o, senti-o, faze-o, grita-as?
    – Camila326
    Aug 19, 2023 at 4:54
  • The 1st sentence of your answer claims that there's
    – Camila326
    Aug 21, 2023 at 17:55
  • @Camila326 it doesn't. There is no "dize" so there is no "dize-o". There is however "dizer" and "dizes" so there is "dizê-lo" and "dize-lo"
    – Artefacto
    Aug 22, 2023 at 9:12
  • There's not. But you've said only
    – Camila326
    Aug 24, 2023 at 18:19
1

Yes, it is correct, lho is a contraction lhe(s) + o (indirect object + direct object). Thus dizer-lho means dizê-lo a ele(s)/ela(s)/você(s).

No alteration occurs when the verb and lho are concatenated (and thus dizer-lho is correct, in all dialects). Alterations occur only in the following cases:

  • ...r/s/z + o(a)(s) → ...(delete final consonant)-lo(a)(s), and some short verbs admit two possibilities (e.g., qué-lo/quere-o [1]);
  • ...N + o(a)(s) → ...N-no(a)(s) where N is a nasal sound (-m or -õe, or -ão?);
  • ...mos + nos → ...mo-nos (where nos is 1st person plural [2]).

List of contractions indirect + direct object:

  • me → ma(s), mo(s);
  • te → ta(s), to(s);
  • lhe(s) → lha(s), lho(s);
  • nos → no-lo(s), no-la(s);
  • vos → vo-lo(s), vo-la(s).

More examples: https://portuguese.stackexchange.com/a/3585/13298 (in Portuguese).

[1]. "Quere-o" - https://ciberduvidas.iscte-iul.pt/consultorio/perguntas/quere-o/2147

[2]. "Lavamo-nos e Lavamos-vos" - https://ciberduvidas.iscte-iul.pt/consultorio/perguntas/lavamo-nos-e-lavamos-vos/31030

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  • I know what it is and how it's created. My question is whether or not it's correct to attach it after verb-r. If it is, why isn't it correct to use, let's say, prepara(r)-lo with r too? Which isn't the same, but similar.
    – Camila326
    Aug 16, 2023 at 1:40

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