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My question is only about Portuguese of Portugal.
I've done a search but barely found anything. What's the more correct, or more common, form among these:
The question isn't about "pagou"-form, but "pagado".
The second form is the one used and correct for European Portuguese, with a small change:
Ele tem-me pago.
The form "pagado" has fallen in disuse in Portugal, see Artefacto's good answer in a question about "pago vs pagado", complemented with Centaurus' answer for a solid understanding.
The first form, "ele me tem pagado", is Brasilian Portuguese - it uses próclise (me tem) where European Portuguese would use ênclise (tem-me).
The third form is incorrect, it's agrammatical.
I'm not 100% sure of this, but I think that the pronoun must always go with the auxiliary verb.
In this third form, it is wrongly with the main verb (pagado-*me).
In Portugal and in Brazil, the past participle should not have enclisis; in Portugal, it should neither have proclisis; then, the participle has no clitic pronoun. Basically, sentences as “Ele tem me visto” and “Tem pagado-me” are wrong.
But something can both be wrong and be used — figures of speech are actually intentional grammatical errors. In the Corpus do Português, there are three corpora. Searching on the three by an example of a regular participle with an eclitic pronoun (e.g., eu tenho pagado-te), I found only a few examples. Most examples could be only an error, since the past participle and the gerund have a lot in common in Portuguese, and their writings are similar enough; for example, here, with perhaps tornado-se instead of tornando-se.
But some even fewer examples were probably not a mistake, as on here. These websites also had a more colloquial language.
Therefore, the forms «tem-me pagado» and «ele não me tem pagado» seem to be the most common. The rest, that is «tem me pagado»/«tem me-pagado» and «tem pagado-me», seem to be exceptional.
